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Just to throw my 2 cents in here, I think that part of the justification for Samuel's marriage to Sarah Beall (daughter of Ninian Beall) are the issues surrounding Alexander (the immigrant's) will and administration thereof.
Obviously, if Ninian Beall was an overseer of Alexander's will, along with Samuel Taylor and Nathaniel Truman, then Ninian Beall and the Beall family were already fairly close to the Magruder's during Alexander's time and certainly by Samuel's time.
In another posting by Mr. McManus in this forum, he describes a situation after Alexander's death wherein Samuel Taylor (quite possibly father to Sarah, Alexander's wife, and namesake of Alexander's son) and Ninian Beall petition the courts to allow the administration of Alexander's will in the abscence of Elizabeth (arguably "Hawkins") Magruder, Alexander's widow (who is claimed as being recently deceased but who shows up 3 months later). Noticably absent at this petition is the 3rd overseer, Nathaniel Truman, interestingly enough. (Peter, please correct me if I have this part wrong!)
I believe that part of the case for the wife of Samuel to be Sarah Beall was the already-proven relationship between Samuel's father, Alexander, and Ninian Beall. Also, the efforts that Samuel Taylor and Ninian Beall took on behalf of the older set of Alexander's children may have led many to believe that Ninian was more than just a family friend (just as it suggests to some people that Samuel Taylor may have been more than "just a friend") but possibly was looking out for the older sons due to some relationship (or potential future relationship) to the family (i.e. looking out for his future son-in-law, although the marriage date I have for Samuel and Sarah is long after this incident).
That, plus finding a "Sarah" and a "Mary" as daughters for Ninian Beall would probably have led many to believe that these two sisters were the Sarah and Mary that married Samuel Magruder and John Pottinger, respectively. (i.e. finding a "match" to the names.)
Just a few thoughts...and I'm not saying they are "the facts" only adding to the speculation on this issue. If having a son named "Ninian" was the only justification for the marriage, I would have to say that's not a lot of proof; since any Scotsman or his descendents could easily have been named "Ninian" after St. Ninian from the old country (which is quite possibly where Ninian Beall himself got that name).
Thoughts?
JD
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