Chat
|
Daily Search
|
My GenForum
|
Community Standards
|
Terms of Service
|
|
|
QUOTE:“Unlikely that a "Persian Princess" would have married a white man in the 1800”
First of all, Iranians or “Persian princesses” are/were Caucasoids (Caucasian race = “white”) by racial and biological standards (DNA)*. And let me remind you that Iran has never been colonialized for others to call Persians "non whites".
Have you met any Iranians by any chance? Better yet, do you consider Iranian royalties being Africans or Asians? And Farah Pahlavi isn’t “white” either? She’s what then - Chinese or Bantu?
Elaine, it was not at all unlikely that Qâjâr courtisanes (“Persian princesses”) moved to Europe and settled there. Many of them stayed there and have very strong family ties.
They even have an official website:
http://www.kadjarfamily.org/
And some pictures (browsing is possible): http://www.kadjarfamily.org/eventPicturesDetail.cfm?astID=1751&eventID=6
If these people are “not white” by your standards, than Southern Europeans aren’t either.
QUOTE:“She would have been completely disowned by her family and threatened with death”
Maybe so…but killing and disowning was more “unlikely” than the other scenario. It was more “unlikely” for them to marry their African or Hindu slaves.
I basically think you should read more about Iranian history.
*If a non-Iranian Caucasian (for example an Irish man) have children with an Iranian, their children are not racially mixed. Iranians and Irish are both Caucasians so their children will be Caucasians.
Notify Administrator about this message?
Followups:No followups yet |
| http://genforum.genealogy.com/iran/messages/515.html | ||
 |
Link to GenForum Add Forum |
|