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I have many questions about your interpretation of the correct French pronunciation of the "r" before a silent "e". As far as "r" is concerned, Quebeckers are NO different than the French across the pond. I know because I am a trilingual Canadian (Fr., Eng. and Ger.) and Favre would be Fav'r(e). The "r" is rolled, in case you did not know, in both France and Quebec. So, in this case you give the "r" a brief rolling sound, as if you were following it with a vowel, like a "rrr-at", but you swallow the vowel "by using a silent or at least a nearly-silent schwa (ə) ...preventing an awkward ending of a word [closing with] a consonant and a silent "e" (peuple, sucre). The letter r represents a uvular trill pronounced far back in the throat ([ʀ])— [in this case]this may also be an uvular fricative or approximant." I got this quote from Wikipedia, but only to illustrate what I already know by instinct, as I am fully trilingual.
Please admit that the pronunciation "Farve" is totally unacceptable by French standards and results from the refusal to respect the sounds of another language. These "unilinguists" ignore the proper sequence of "a-v-r(e)", out of ignorance and laziness.
Basically, I would suggest that instead of playing around with the pronunciation, English-only speakers simply agree to spell the name the way they pronounce it, namely "Farve" and stop pretending they are French. Alternately, they could pronounce it as close to the real thing as possible, by saying "Fav'or", which is an English word, and allows the "r" to come AFTER the "v". I see no excuse for "Farve" and it really bothers me that people try to justify that pronunciation when there exists no reason at all for reversing the letters.
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